Author gabi
Recipients florian, gabi, haz, jendrik, malte, silvan
Date 2014-01-06.18:29:34
Just to make this clear: in the example in msg2881, removing the effect
condition {x=2} would not change the operator because effect 2 would trigger
whenever the operator is applied, independently of this effect condition.

However, I just had a look at the code and in lines 296-297 an
effect is dropped if it sets the variable to the same value as required by the
precondition. At the moment, I do not see why we can do this.
Date User Action Args
2014-01-06 18:29:34gabisetmessageid: <>
2014-01-06 18:29:34gabisetrecipients: + gabi, malte, haz, jendrik, silvan, florian
2014-01-06 18:29:34gabilinkissue397 messages
2014-01-06 18:29:34gabicreate